Quote:
Originally Posted by kia345
But Italy is not the Roman Empire. They are two completely different countries that just happen to occupy the same land. What you're saying would be if I took an American food dish and claimed it was of Apache origin just because they're on the same land, however many years apart.
And if you want to be really specific, the people of the capital (both Rome and Constantinople) most likely spoke more Greek than Latin, as Greek was the scholarly language, studied by the political elite. That would also explain why Latin didn't carry over into the Ottoman Empire - The high class Romans of the populated cities spoke and practiced Greek, not Latin.
|
You just proved to me how stupid a person can get.
Just because they are two separate countries, does not mean Rome didn't influence Italy in any way. Who built the buildings, the infrastructure, and the culture that resides in Italy? The Romans did. -- Also, the dish example in completely invalid. I am talking of a country that influenced a language upon another country. Italy uses the language of latin the same way the Romans did, if you make a dish that is completely different than how the Apache's did it, it is not the same thing. Yet, if you used the same materials, cooked it the same way, then yes you can pass the dish off as Apache.
Also, who cares what the scholars spoke? The language of the common people, Latin, was used by a much more massive population / slaves-farmers-etc. So therefore, of course latin would have a bigger influence than Greece. You are a dumb ****.